QUIZ: UGC NET Paper 2 (Env Science)

/50

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UGC NET PAPER – 2

50 Questions. Time – 1 Hour

1 / 50

1. The concept of “biodiversity hotspots” includes areas with:

I. High species richness

II. High endemism

III. Significant habitat loss

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

2 / 50

2. Which of the following are examples of categorical variables?

I. Gender

II. Age

III. Blood type

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

3 / 50

3. The “Keeling Curve” is a graph that shows the variation of:

A. Global average temperature over time.

B. The extent of Arctic sea ice over time.

C. Atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration over time.

D. Ocean acidity over time.

4 / 50

The “environmental Kuznets curve” (EKC) hypothesizes that:

A. Economic growth always leads to environmental degradation.

B. Environmental degradation inevitably leads to economic decline.

C. Environmental degradation initially increases with economic growth but then decreases after a certain income level.

D. Economic growth and environmental quality are unrelated.

5 / 50

5. In the context of climate change, “radiative forcing” refers to:

A. The difference between incoming solar radiation and outgoing infrared radiation.

B. The amount of energy absorbed by greenhouse gases.

C. The rate of sea-level rise due to thermal expansion

D. The intensity of solar radiation reaching the Earth's surface.

6 / 50

6. A sample of wastewater has a dissolved oxygen (DO) concentration of 5 mg/L and a biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5) of 20 mg/L. What is the estimated oxygen deficit after 5 days?

A. 5 mg/L

B. 15 mg/L

C. 25 mg/L

D. 4 mg/L

7 / 50

7. Which of the following are true about environmental models?

I. They are simplified representations of complex systems.

II. They can be used to predict future environmental conditions.

III. They are always accurate and reliable.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

8 / 50

8. Identify the correct statements regarding the Kyoto Protocol:

I. It is an international treaty linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

II. It sets binding emission reduction targets for developed countries.

III. It established the concept of carbon trading.

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. All of the Above

9 / 50

9. Assertion (A): The t-test is used to compare the means of two independent groups.

Reason (R): ANOVA is used to compare the means of three or more groups.

A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

10 / 50

10. A: Eutrophication can lead to the formation of “dead zones” in aquatic ecosystems.

Reason (R): Excessive nutrient input causes algal blooms, which deplete oxygen levels when they decompose.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

11 / 50

11. In the context of mass and energy transfer, the term “fugacity” is most closely related to:

A. The rate at which a pollutant degrades in the environment.

B. The toxicity of a chemical to living organisms.

C. The concentration of a pollutant in a particular medium.

D. The escaping tendency of a chemical from one phase to another.

12 / 50

12. Assertion (A): Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) is a holistic approach to evaluating the environmental impact of a product.

Reason (R): LCA only considers the environmental impacts during the manufacturing phase of a product.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. A is false but R is true.

C. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

D. A is true but R is false.

13 / 50

13. Which of the following are true about the normal distribution?

I. It is a bell-shaped curve.

II. The mean, median, and mode are all equal.

III. It is defined by its mean and standard deviation.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

14 / 50

14. The Gaia Hypothesis proposes that:

A. Earth is a self-regulating organism.

B. Earth is a closed system with no external influences.

C. Humans are the dominant force shaping the environment.

D. Life on Earth evolved through random chance.

15 / 50

15. Identify the correct statements about sampling theory:

I. A sample is a subset of a population.

II. Random sampling ensures every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

III. The larger the sample size, the lower the sampling error.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

16 / 50

16. A coal-fired power plant releases 1000 kg of sulfur dioxide (SO2) per day. Given that the atomic weight of sulfur is 32 g/mol and oxygen is 16 g/mol, what is the molar mass of SO2? (EASY HAI 🙂

A. 48 g/mol

B. 64 g/mol

C. 80 g/mol

D. 96 g/mol

17 / 50

17. The “Love Canal” disaster in the US is a classic example of:

A. Hazardous waste contamination

B. Nuclear Disaster

C. Irrigation Problem

D. Chemical Industry release wastewater directly into canal

18 / 50

18. Which type of avalanche is the most dangerous and destructive?

A. Loose snow avalanche

B. Wet snow avalanche

C. Slab avalanche

D. Powder avalanche

19 / 50

19. Which of the following is NOT a density-dependent factor influencing population growth?

A. Disease

B. Predation

C. Competition

D. Natural disasters

20 / 50

20. The “biogeochemical cycle” refers to the cyclical movement of

A. Water between the Earth's surface and the atmosphere.

B. Carbon between the atmosphere and living organisms.

C. Energy through food webs.

D. Nutrients through the Earth's systems, including living organisms

21 / 50

21. Which of the following are true about environmental impact assessments (EIAs)?

I. They are mandatory for all development projects.

II. They aim to predict the environmental consequences of proposed projects.

III. They involve public participation.

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. All of the above

22 / 50

22. Assertion (A): The Lotka-Volterra model describes the interaction between predator and prey populations.

Reason (R): The Leslie matrix model is used to predict population growth in age-structured populations.

A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

23 / 50

23. Assertion (A): The Montreal Protocol has been successful in addressing the depletion of the ozone layer.

Reason (R): The Montreal Protocol mandated the phase-out of ozone-depleting substances (ODS) like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

24 / 50

24. Which remote sensing technique uses sound waves to map the ocean floor?

A. LiDAR

B. Sonar

C. Radar

D. Multispectral imaging

25 / 50

25. The “intermediate disturbance hypothesis” suggests that:

A. Species diversity is highest in ecosystems with intermediate levels of disturbance.

B. Species diversity is highest in ecosystems with rare disturbances.

C. Species diversity is highest in ecosystems with frequent disturbances.

D. Species diversity is unrelated to disturbance frequency.

26 / 50

26. Which of the following are not examples of parametric tests?

I. t-test

II. ANOVA

III. U test

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only III

D. None of these

27 / 50

27. Assertion (A): The normal distribution is a continuous probability distribution that is symmetrical around its mean.

Reason (R): The standard normal distribution has a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1.

A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

28 / 50

28. Which of the following are environmental issues associated with large dam projects in India?

I. Displacement of local populations

II. Loss of biodiversity

III. Increased seismic activity

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

29 / 50

29. The effectiveness of a biofilter for removing a specific gaseous pollutant depends primarily on:

A. The flow rate of the gas stream

B. The presence of appropriate microorganisms

C. The type of filter media used

D. The concentration of the pollutant

30 / 50

30. The primary function of a demister in a wet scrubber is to:

A. Increase the contact area between gas and liquid

B. Reduce the pressure drop across the scrubber

C. Prevent liquid droplets from escaping with the cleaned gas

D. Enhance the removal of particulate matter

31 / 50

31. The “photostationary state” in atmospheric chemistry refers to:

A. The equilibrium between ozone production and destruction in the stratosphere.

B. The steady-state concentration of a pollutant in the atmosphere.

C. The balance between photosynthesis and respiration in plants.

D. The point at which solar radiation is equal to terrestrial radiation.

32 / 50

32. Which biogeographic realm is known for its unique marsupial fauna?

A. Neotropical

B. Afrotropical

C. Australasian

D. Indomalayan

33 / 50

33. Which of the following are renewable energy sources promoted by India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change?

I. Solar energy II. Nuclear energy III. Wind energy

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

34 / 50

34. Which of the following is a major environmental impact of large-scale livestock production?

A. Deforestation

B. Water pollution

C. Greenhouse gas emissions

D. All of the above

35 / 50

35. The concept of “Environmental Justice” primarily addresses:

A. Fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income, with respect to the development, implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies.

B. The equitable distribution of environmental benefits and burdens across different social groups.

C. The right of future generations to a healthy and sustainable environment.

D. The legal standing of ecosystems and natural entities to sue for damages caused by environmental pollution.

36 / 50

36. Assertion (A): Bioaccumulation refers to the increase in concentration of a substance as it moves up the food chain.

Reason (R): Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are more likely to bioaccumulate than readily degradable substances.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

37 / 50

37. “Allelopathy” refers to the phenomenon where:

A. Plants attract pollinators using chemical signals.

B. Plants release chemicals that inhibit the growth of other plants.

C. Plants develop symbiotic relationships with fungi.

D. Plants adapt to changing environmental conditions.

38 / 50

38. A soil sample contains 2% organic carbon by weight. If the C:N ratio of the organic matter is 10:1, what is the percentage of nitrogen in the soil?

A. 1 %

B. 0.1 %

C. 0.2%

D. ~ 0.04 %

39 / 50

39. Assertion (A): The use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in agriculture is a controversial topic.

Reason (R): There are concerns about the potential environmental and health impacts of GMOs.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

40 / 50

40. In environmental chemistry, chemical speciation refers to:

A. The identification of different chemical species in a sample

B. The classification of elements based on their properties.

C. The measurement of chemical concentrations.

D. The study of chemical reactions in the environment.

41 / 50

41. The “greenhouse effect” is primarily caused by:

A. The absorption of infrared radiation by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

B. The reflection of solar radiation by clouds and aerosols.

C. The depletion of the ozone layer.

D. The release of heat from industrial processes.

42 / 50

42. In the context of remote sensing, “spectral signature” refers to:

A. The unique pattern of electromagnetic radiation reflected or emitted by a particular object or material.

B. The resolution of a satellite image.

C. The use of ground-truthing to verify remote sensing data.

D. The process of correcting geometric distortions in satellite images.

43 / 50

43. A parcel of air at sea level has a temperature of 25°C and a dew point of 15°C. If this parcel rises adiabatically to an altitude of 2000 meters, assuming a dry adiabatic lapse rate of 9.8°C/km, what will be its approximate temperature at that altitude?

A. 5.4°C

B. 10.6°C

C. 15.2°C

D. 20.8°C

44 / 50

44. Betz’s law states that the maximum theoretical efficiency of a wind turbine is:

A. 49.3%

B. 59.3%

C. 69.3%

D. 39.3%

45 / 50

45. An urban area generates 1000 tons of municipal solid waste (MSW) per day, and the waste has an average energy content of 10 MJ/kg. If a waste-to-energy plant can convert 25% of this energy into electricity, how much electricity (in MWh) can be generated daily?

A. 25 MWh

B. 62.5 MWh

C. 250 MWh

D. 625 MWh

46 / 50

46. Which of the following statements about flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is TRUE?

A. It is primarily used to remove nitrogen oxides (NOx)

B. It always involves the use of a dry scrubbing process

C. It is a post-combustion technology for removing sulfur dioxide (SO2)

D. It is not subject to any environmental regulations

47 / 50

47. Which law of thermodynamics explains the concept of energy degradation?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

48 / 50

48. Which of the following are true about the chi-square test?

I. It is used to test relationships between categorical variables.

II. It is used to test the goodness of fit of a theoretical distribution to observed data.

III. It assumes that the data are normally distributed.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

49 / 50

49. The concept of “ecological footprint” is a measure of:

A. The amount of land and water area required to sustain a population's consumption and waste.

B. The total carbon emissions of a country or individual.

C. The impact of human activities on biodiversity loss.

D. The amount of renewable resources used by a population.

50 / 50

50. Identify the correct statements about biodiversity:

I. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and endemism.

II. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty aimed at conserving biodiversity.\

III. In-situ conservation involves preserving species in their natural habitats.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

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Environmental Science Complete Quiz

100 Questions

1 / 100

1. Which of the following is a crucial factor in avalanche formation?

A. Steep slopes

B. Triggering events (e.g., skiers)

C. Weak snowpack layers

D. All these

2 / 100

2. The Kjeldahl method is used to determine:

A. Nitrogen content

B. Sulfur content

C. Halogen content

D. Ash content

3 / 100

3. The Coriolis effect plays a significant role in:

A. Solar Power

B. Tidal energy generation

C. Wind power generation

D. Geothermal energy extraction

4 / 100

4. What is the primary limitation of using steady-state models for environmental systems?

A. They cannot account for changes in environmental conditions over time

B. They are too complex to be solved analytically

C. They require extensive data collection

D. They are only applicable to small-scale systems

5 / 100

5. In the context of climate change, “radiative forcing” refers to:

A. The difference between incoming solar radiation and outgoing infrared radiation.

B. The amount of energy absorbed by greenhouse gases.

C. The rate of sea-level rise due to thermal expansion

D. The intensity of solar radiation reaching the Earth's surface.

6 / 100

6. Which of the following techniques does NOT involve the use of X-rays?

A. XRF

B. XRD

C. SEM

D. NMR

7 / 100

7. The concept of “zero waste” aims to:

A. Eliminate all waste generation

B. Design waste out of products and processes

C. Maximize recycling rates

D. Reduce waste to landfill

8 / 100

8. The “Cradle-to-Cradle” approach to waste management emphasizes:

A. Linear waste disposal

B. Designing products for continuous recycling and reuse

C. Waste-to-energy incineration

D. Minimizing waste generation at the source

9 / 100

9. The concept of “biodiversity hotspots” includes areas with:

I. High species richness

II. High endemism

III. Significant habitat loss

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

10 / 100

10. The Mercalli Intensity Scale measures an earthquake based on:

A. The amount of energy released

B. The observed effects and damage

C. The amplitude of seismic waves

D. The depth of the earthquake's focus

11 / 100

11. If s² is the variance of a sample of size N drawn from a normal population with variance σ, then Ns²/σ² has which one of the following distribution with (N-1) degrees of freedom ?

A. Chi-square

B. Normal

C. Student's t

D. Poisson

12 / 100

12. The Richter scale measures an earthquake’s:

A. Intensity

B. Magnitude

C. Frequency

D. Duration

13 / 100

13. “Downcycling” of plastic waste refers to:

A. Converting plastic into higher-value products

B. Converting plastic into lower-quality materials

C. Reducing plastic consumption

D. Eliminating plastic waste entirely

14 / 100

14. An urban area generates 1000 tons of municipal solid waste (MSW) per day, and the waste has an average energy content of 10 MJ/kg. If a waste-to-energy plant can convert 25% of this energy into electricity, how much electricity (in MWh) can be generated daily?

A. 25 MWh

B. 62.5 MWh

C. 250 MWh

D. 625 MWh

15 / 100

15. Early warning systems for tsunamis rely primarily on:

A. Buoys and seafloor sensors

B. Satellite imagery

C. Weather radar

D. Seismic monitoring

16 / 100

16. Which of the following is NOT a type of solar thermal storage system?

A. Sensible heat storage

B. Electrochemical storage

C. Latent heat storage

D. Thermochemical storage

17 / 100

17. Fourier transform infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy is primarily used to identify:

A. Functional groups in organic molecules

B. Isotopes of elements

C. Crystal defects

D. Heavy metals

18 / 100

18. Which GPCD is MOST effective at removing highly soluble acidic gases like hydrogen chloride (HCl)?

A. Adsorber

B. Absorber

C. Thermal oxidizer

D. Catalytic oxidizer

19 / 100

19. Which type of baghouse filter media is most suitable for high-temperature applications?

A. Cotton

B. Fiberglass

C. Nomex

D. Polyester

20 / 100

20. The power coefficient (Cp) of a wind turbine is defined as the ratio of:

A. Rotor power to wind power

B. Tip speed ratio to wind speed

C. Wind speed to rotor speed

D. Blade area to swept area

21 / 100

21. Pyrolysis and gasification are thermal treatment processes primarily used for:

A. Sterilizing biomedical waste

B. Converting plastic waste into fuel or chemicals

C. Extracting metals from e-waste

D. Reducing the volume of landfill waste

22 / 100

22. Identify the correct statements about sampling theory:

I. A sample is a subset of a population.

II. Random sampling ensures every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

III. The larger the sample size, the lower the sampling error.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

23 / 100

23. The “A” value in soil fertility refers to:

A. The amount of available phosphorus

B. The amount of available calcium

C. The amount of available potassium

D. The amount of available nitrogen

24 / 100

24. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?

A. Sterilization kills all microorganisms, while disinfection only reduces their number.

B. Sterilization is used on living tissue, while disinfection is used on inanimate objects.

C. Sterilization uses heat, while disinfection uses chemicals.

D. There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable.

Sterilization is a more extreme process that eliminates all microbial life.

25 / 100

25. Which of the following is an example of a biological weathering process?

A. Frost action

B. Root penetration

C. Oxidation

D. Hydrolysis

26 / 100

26. Which law of thermodynamics explains the concept of energy degradation?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

27 / 100

27. Which of the following is NOT a precursor to a volcanic eruption?

A. Decreased water temperature

B. Ground deformation

C. Increased seismic activity

D. Changes in gas emissions

28 / 100

28. In flood risk assessment, the term “100-year flood” refers to:

A. A flood that occurs exactly every 100 years

B. A flood with a 1% chance of occurring in any given year

C. The largest flood ever recorded

D. A flood that lasts for 100 years

29 / 100

29. Which type of cloud this is

A. Cirrus

B. Cumulus

C. Stratus

D. Nimbus

30 / 100

30. In a dry scrubber system, the sorbent material typically reacts with the pollutant gas to form:

A. A solid precipitate.

B. A liquid effluent.

C. A gaseous byproduct.

D. A colloidal suspension.

31 / 100

31. Which of the following is NOT a type of chromatography?

A. Ion exchange chromatography

B. Affinity chromatography

C. Size exclusion chromatography

D. Combustion chromatography

32 / 100

32. The “Keeling Curve” is a graph that shows the variation of:

A. Global average temperature over time.

B. The extent of Arctic sea ice over time.

C. Atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration over time.

D. Ocean acidity over time.

33 / 100

33. When modeling pollutant dispersion in a river, what key assumption does the Plug Flow Reactor (PFR) model make about mixing?

A. Complete and instantaneous mixing along the entire river length b)

B. No mixing occurs along the river length

C. Mixing only occurs at specific points along the river

D. Mixing is uniform but gradual along the river length

34 / 100

34.

Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of pollution?

A. Factory discharge pipe

B. Leaking underground storage tank

C. Municipal sewage treatment plant

D. Runoff from agricultural fields

35 / 100

35. Gravimetric analysis relies on the measurement of:

A. Volume of a solution

B. Intensity of light absorption

C. Mass of a precipitate

D. Temperature change

36 / 100

36. Which soil structure is most desirable for plant growth?

A. Massive

B. Single grain

C. Granular

D. Platy

37 / 100

37. Inductively coupled plasma (ICP) techniques offer the following advantages:

A. High sensitivity

B. Wide linear dynamic range

C. Ability to analyze multiple elements simultaneously

D. All of the above

38 / 100

38. Which particulate control device is MOST suitable for capturing submicron particles with high efficiency in a high-temperature industrial process?

A. Cyclone

B. Baghouse

C. Electrostatic precipitator

D. Wet scrubber

39 / 100

39. In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is:

A. Cellulose

B. Silica gel

C. Alumina

D. A liquid solvent

40 / 100

40. Biomagnification of persistent organic pollutants (POPs) in food webs primarily affects:

A. Primary producers

B. Herbivores

C. Top predators

D. Decomposers

41 / 100

41. Which GPCD utilizes microorganisms to degrade pollutants?

A. Thermal Oxidizer

B. Biofilter

C. Absorber

D. Adsorber

42 / 100

42. The “intermediate disturbance hypothesis” suggests that:

A. Species diversity is highest in ecosystems with intermediate levels of disturbance.

B. Species diversity is highest in ecosystems with rare disturbances.

C. Species diversity is highest in ecosystems with frequent disturbances.

D. Species diversity is unrelated to disturbance frequency.

43 / 100

43. How does the Earth’s radiation balance contribute to the greenhouse effect?

A. By reflecting solar energy

B. By absorbing all radiation

C. By emitting long wavelengths

D. By increasing atmospheric pressure

44 / 100

44. Which of the following is an example of a symbiotic relationship between a microbe and a plant?

A. Mycorrhizae

B. Rhizobia

C. Both a and b

D. Neither a nor b

45 / 100

45. The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale categorizes hurricanes based on:

A. Storm surge height

B. Central pressure

C. Rainfall intensity

D. Maximum sustained wind speed

46 / 100

46. The effectiveness of a biofilter for removing a specific gaseous pollutant depends primarily on:

A. The flow rate of the gas stream

B. The presence of appropriate microorganisms

C. The type of filter media used

D. The concentration of the pollutant

47 / 100

47. In anaerobic digestion, the conversion of volatile fatty acids (VFAs) to methane is primarily carried out by:

A. Acetogenic bacteria

B. Methanogenic archaea

C. Syntrophic bacteria

D. Sulfate-reducing bacteria

Methanogenic archaea, unique microbes specialize in the final step of methane production during anaerobic digestion

48 / 100

48. The use of anthropoid hazard chemicals like DDT causes reduction in fish population
because the chemical mimics the effect of

A. Luteinizing hormone

B. Testosterone

C. Estrogen

D. All of the above

DDT is an endocrine disruptor that mimics the effects of estrogen, leading to reproductive problems in fish.

49 / 100

49. Which type of geothermal power plant is most suitable for areas with low-temperature geothermal resources?

A. Dry steam

B. Binary cycle

C. Flash steam

D. Enhanced geothermal system

50 / 100

50. Which soil horizon is often referred to as “subsoil”?

A. A horizon

B. B horizon

C. C horizon

D. R horizon

51 / 100

51. Gas chromatography (GC) separates components based on their:

A. Molecular weight

B. Volatility and interaction with the stationary phase

C. Solubility in the mobile phase

D. Electrical charge

52 / 100

52. Which of the following is NOT a common method for identifying microorganisms?

A. 16S rRNA gene sequencing

B. Gram staining

C. Fatty acid methyl ester (FAME) analysis

D. Electron microscopy

Electron microscopy visualizes microbes but doesn’t directly identify them like the other techniques.

53 / 100

53. X-ray fluorescence (XRF) is best suited for the analysis of:

A. Light elements (e.g., H, C, O)

B. Heavy elements (e.g., Pb, Au, Hg)

C. All elements equally

D. Organic compounds

54 / 100

54. Which GPCD is known for its ability to simultaneously remove both particulate and gaseous pollutants?

A. Thermal oxidizer

B. Wet scrubber

C. Adsorber

D. Biofilter

55 / 100

55. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonia by bacteria is called:

A. Denitrification

B. Ammonification

C. Nitrification

D. Nitrogen fixation

56 / 100

56. The phenomenon of industrial smog is primarily associated with which type of pollution?

A. Photochemical smog

B. Sulfur dioxide and particulate matter

C. Carbon monoxide and ozone

D. Nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds

57 / 100

57. A key disadvantage of geothermal energy compared to other renewable sources is:

A. Limited geographical availability

B. Intermittency

C. High environmental impact

D. Low energy density

58 / 100

58. Quorum sensing in bacteria is primarily mediated by:

A. Signaling molecules called autoinducers

B. Direct physical contact between cells

C. Environmental cues like temperature and pH

D. Exchange of genetic material

Autoinducers are the chemical messengers bacteria use for quorum sensing.

59 / 100

59. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) provides information on:

A. Surface morphology and topography

B. Bulk elemental composition

C. Crystal structure

D. Molecular weight

60 / 100

60. Which of the following gaseous pollutant control devices is NOT suitable for removing nitrogen oxides (NOx)?

A. Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR)

B. Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR)

C. Biofilter

D. Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD)

61 / 100

61. Flame photometry is most suitable for the quantitative determination of:

A. Alkali and alkaline earth metals

B. Transition metals

C. Halogens

D. Organic compounds

62 / 100

62. A baghouse is experiencing a rapid increase in pressure drop across the filter bags. What is the MOST likely cause?

A. Excessive moisture in the gas stream

B. Bag failure due to abrasion

C. Insufficient cleaning cycle

D. Buildup of dust cake on the bags

63 / 100

63. In the Munsell color system, soil hue of 5YR indicates:

A. Red-yellow

B. Blue-green

C. Green-yellow

D. Yellow-red

64 / 100

64. The Indian regional satellite navigation system known as

A. GLONASS

B. IRNSS

C. NAVSTAR

D. GPS

65 / 100

65. Which type of seismic wave is the fastest and first to arrive at a seismograph station?

A. P-waves

B. S-waves

C. Love waves

D. Rayleigh waves

66 / 100

66. A coal-fired power plant releases 1000 kg of sulfur dioxide (SO2) per day. Given that the atomic weight of sulfur is 32 g/mol and oxygen is 16 g/mol, what is the molar mass of SO2? (EASY HAI 🙂

A. 48 g/mol

B. 64 g/mol

C. 80 g/mol

D. 96 g/mol

67 / 100

67. Assertion (A): The use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in agriculture is a controversial topic.

Reason (R): There are concerns about the potential environmental and health impacts of GMOs.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.

68 / 100

68. Which remote sensing technique uses sound waves to map the ocean floor?

A. LiDAR

B. Sonar

C. Radar

D. Multispectral imaging

69 / 100

69. Which of the following is NOT a type of tidal energy system?

A. Tidal barrage

B. Tidal stream

C. Dynamic tidal power

D. Tidal surge

70 / 100

70. Landslide susceptibility maps are used to:

A. Predict the exact time of a landslide

B. Identify areas prone to landslides

C. Determine the type of landslide

D. Mitigate the impact of landslides

71 / 100

71. In an Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) system, the working fluid typically has:

A. High boiling point and low freezing point

B. Low boiling point and low freezing point

C. High boiling point and high freezing point

D. Low boiling point and high freezing point

72 / 100

72. The “greenhouse effect” is primarily caused by:

A. The absorption of infrared radiation by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

B. The reflection of solar radiation by clouds and aerosols.

C. The depletion of the ozone layer.

D. The release of heat from industrial processes.

73 / 100

73. The “breakthrough point” in an adsorber refers to:

A. The point at which the adsorbent is fully saturated and can no longer adsorb pollutants.

B. The point at which the pollutant concentration in the outlet gas exceeds a predetermined limit.

C. The point at which the adsorbent bed starts to regenerate.

D. The point at which the temperature in the adsorber reaches its maximum limit.

74 / 100

74. Which of the following diversity indices best captures species turnover across habitats?

A. Alpha

B. Beta

C. Gamma

D. Delta

75 / 100

75. The primary challenge in the design of solar ponds for electricity generation is:

A. Maintaining a stable salinity gradient

B. Preventing heat loss

C. Maximizing light absorption

D. Managing algae growth

76 / 100

76. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing soil organic matter decomposition?

A. Soil color

B. Temperature

C. Moisture

D. Soil pH

77 / 100

77. Identify the correct statements about biodiversity:

I. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and endemism.

II. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty aimed at conserving biodiversity.\

III. In-situ conservation involves preserving species in their natural habitats.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

78 / 100

78. Which of the following is NOT a primary mechanism by which microbes contribute to soil aggregate formation?

A. Exopolysaccharide production

B. Hyphal entanglement

C. Mineral weathering

D. Nitrogen fixation

While beneficial for plants, nitrogen fixation doesn’t directly contribute to soil structure formation like the other options.

79 / 100

79. In an ESP, the phenomenon of “back corona” is caused by:

A. Excessive gas flow rate

B. High dust resistivity

C. Low particle resistivity

D. High collection plate spacing

80 / 100

80. “Producer Responsibility Organizations” (PROs) are primarily involved in:

A. Setting environmental standards for electronic products

B. Enforcing regulations on e-waste disposal

C. Conducting research on e-waste management

D. Collecting and recycling electronic waste on behalf of manufacturers

81 / 100

81. Flood mitigation strategies include:

A. Construction of dams and levees

B. Floodplain management

C. Wetland restoration

D. All these

82 / 100

82. Avalanches can be triggered by:

A. a) Natural causes (e.g., new snowfall)

B. b) Human activities (e.g., skiing)

C. c) Both a and b

D. d) None of the above

83 / 100

83.

Which type of radiation is most harmful to living organisms?

A. Alpha radiation

B. Beta radiation

C. Gamma radiation

D. Infrared radiation

84 / 100

84. The “Great Pacific Garbage Patch” is primarily composed of:

A. Microplastics

B. Large plastic debris

C. Abandoned fishing gear

D. Plastic strips around coral reefs

85 / 100

85. The concept of “environmental justice” in the context of air pollution refers to:

A. Ensuring equal access to clean air for all communities

B. Imposing stricter regulations on polluting industries

C. Promoting the use of renewable energy sources

D. Establishing air quality monitoring networks

86 / 100

86. Why is the detection of pathogens like Giardia and Cryptosporidium challenging in water testing?

A. They are easily removed through filtration

B. They have a short survival time outside their hosts

C. They are resistant to chemical disinfectants

D. They do not occur in water sources

87 / 100

87. The power output of a photovoltaic module is most sensitive to changes in:

A. Ambient temperature

B. Wind speed

C. Humidity

D. Solar irradiance

88 / 100

88. Which type of solar cell has the highest efficiency?

A. Monocrystalline silicon

B. Polycrystalline silicon

C. Multi-junction

D. Thin-film

89 / 100

89.

Eutrophication in lakes is primarily caused by excessive input of:

Nitrogen
phosphorus
Carbon dioxide
Heavy metals
Pesticides

A. 1 & 2

B. 1, 2 & 3

C. 2 & 5

D. 1,2,3,4 & 5

90 / 100

90. Which soil order is associated with volcanic parent material?

A. Andisols

B. Alfisols

C. Mollisols

D. Oxisols

91 / 100

91. The primary role of fungi in the biogeochemical cycling of phosphorus is:

A. Mineralization of organic phosphorus

B. Immobilization of inorganic phosphorus

C. Solubilization of insoluble phosphorus

D. Fixation of atmospheric phosphorus

Fungi break down organic phosphorus compounds, releasing inorganic forms for plant uptake.

92 / 100

92. When conducting jar tests for flocculation studies, what is counted to assess the process?

A. Dissolved organic compounds

B. Total number of particles

C. Microbial colonies

D. Turbidity levels

93 / 100

93. The cation exchange capacity (CEC) of a soil is highest in:

A. sand

B. silt

C. clay

D. loam

94 / 100

94. What is the primary electron acceptor in dissimilatory metal reduction?

A. Oxygen

B. Nitrate

C. Sulfate

D. A metal cation (e.g., Fe3+)

In dissimilatory metal reduction, microbes use metal ions as terminal electron acceptors in their metabolism.

95 / 100

95. The “Law of the Minimum” in plant nutrition states that:

A. Plants need all nutrients in equal amounts

B. The most abundant nutrient determines plant growth

C. Plant growth is limited by the scarcest nutrient

D. Micronutrients are less important than macronutrients

96 / 100

96. Which of the following factors does NOT directly influence the rate of pollutant generation in a water body?

A. Pollutant concentration in the inflow

B. Water temperature

C. Dissolved oxygen concentration

D. Volume of the water body

97 / 100

97. The “informal sector” in waste management refers to:

A. Private Company-regulated waste collection and recycling

B. Unregulated waste pickers

C. Illegal dumping of waste

D. Non-profit organizations involved in waste reduction

98 / 100

98. The rhizosphere is characterized by:

A. Increased microbial activity compared to bulk soil

B. Lower nutrient availability compared to bulk soil

C. Absence of plant-microbe interactions

D. Predominance of anaerobic microorganisms

The rhizosphere, the area around plant roots, is a hotbed of microbial activity due to root exudates.

99 / 100

99. Which of the following is NOT a common type of reagent used in flue gas desulfurization (FGD) systems?

A. Limestone

B. Lime

C. Caustic soda

D. Activated carbon

100 / 100

100. Which of the following is NOT a primary macronutrient for plant growth?

A. Nitrogen

B. Phosphorus

C. Potassium

D. Iron

Your score is

The average score is 55%

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kanwar

Kanwar Bhan Godara
UGC NET JRF Environmental Science

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