Quiz Environmental Science

QUIZ: UGC NET Paper 2 (Env Science)

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Quiz Environmental Science

Environmental Science Complete Quiz

100 Questions

1 / 100

1. Which type of cloud this is

2 / 100

2. The power output of a photovoltaic module is most sensitive to changes in:

3 / 100

3. The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale categorizes hurricanes based on:

4 / 100

4. Gravimetric analysis relies on the measurement of:

5 / 100

5. The concept of “environmental justice” in the context of air pollution refers to:

6 / 100

6. A key disadvantage of geothermal energy compared to other renewable sources is:

7 / 100

7. Which type of geothermal power plant is most suitable for areas with low-temperature geothermal resources?

8 / 100

8. Which of the following is NOT a type of solar thermal storage system?

9 / 100

9. In a dry scrubber system, the sorbent material typically reacts with the pollutant gas to form:

10 / 100

10. Which of the following is an example of a biological weathering process?

11 / 100

11. The “Cradle-to-Cradle” approach to waste management emphasizes:

12 / 100

12. Inductively coupled plasma (ICP) techniques offer the following advantages:

13 / 100

13. The primary challenge in the design of solar ponds for electricity generation is:

14 / 100

14.

Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of pollution?

15 / 100

15. Flood mitigation strategies include:

16 / 100

16. In the context of climate change, “radiative forcing” refers to:

17 / 100

17. Which of the following gaseous pollutant control devices is NOT suitable for removing nitrogen oxides (NOx)?

18 / 100

18. Which soil order is associated with volcanic parent material?

19 / 100

19. An urban area generates 1000 tons of municipal solid waste (MSW) per day, and the waste has an average energy content of 10 MJ/kg. If a waste-to-energy plant can convert 25% of this energy into electricity, how much electricity (in MWh) can be generated daily?

20 / 100

20. Which of the following is NOT a primary macronutrient for plant growth?

21 / 100

21. The “breakthrough point” in an adsorber refers to:

22 / 100

22. Which GPCD utilizes microorganisms to degrade pollutants?

23 / 100

23. Gas chromatography (GC) separates components based on their:

24 / 100

24. Which GPCD is known for its ability to simultaneously remove both particulate and gaseous pollutants?

25 / 100

25.

Eutrophication in lakes is primarily caused by excessive input of:

  1. Nitrogen

  2. phosphorus

  3. ย Carbon dioxide

  4. Heavy metals

  5. Pesticides

26 / 100

26. Quorum sensing in bacteria is primarily mediated by:

27 / 100

27. The “Keeling Curve” is a graph that shows the variation of:

28 / 100

28. What is the primary limitation of using steady-state models for environmental systems?

29 / 100

29. The Kjeldahl method is used to determine:

30 / 100

30. Which type of seismic wave is the fastest and first to arrive at a seismograph station?

31 / 100

31. In an Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) system, the working fluid typically has:

32 / 100

32. The Mercalli Intensity Scale measures an earthquake based on:

33 / 100

33. The rhizosphere is characterized by:

34 / 100

34. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?

35 / 100

35. If sยฒ is the variance of a sample of size N drawn from a normal population with variance ฯƒ, thenย  Nsยฒ/ฯƒยฒ has which one of the following distribution with (N-1) degrees of freedom ?

36 / 100

36.

Which type of radiation is most harmful to living organisms?

37 / 100

37. Avalanches can be triggered by:

38 / 100

38. X-ray fluorescence (XRF) is best suited for the analysis of:

39 / 100

39. Which soil horizon is often referred to as “subsoil”?

40 / 100

40. The power coefficient (Cp) of a wind turbine is defined as the ratio of:

41 / 100

41. The “intermediate disturbance hypothesis” suggests that:

42 / 100

42. Pyrolysis and gasification are thermal treatment processes primarily used for:

43 / 100

43. Which of the following factors does NOT directly influence the rate of pollutant generation in a water body?

44 / 100

44. Which type of solar cell has the highest efficiency?

45 / 100

45. “Producer Responsibility Organizations” (PROs) are primarily involved in:

46 / 100

46. When modeling pollutant dispersion in a river, what key assumption does the Plug Flow Reactor (PFR) model make about mixing?

47 / 100

47. The concept of “biodiversity hotspots” includes areas with:

I. High species richness

II. High endemism

III. Significant habitat loss

48 / 100

48. In anaerobic digestion, the conversion of volatile fatty acids (VFAs) to methane is primarily carried out by:

49 / 100

49. A baghouse is experiencing a rapid increase in pressure drop across the filter bags. What is the MOST likely cause?

50 / 100

50. Early warning systems for tsunamis rely primarily on:

51 / 100

51. Which type of baghouse filter media is most suitable for high-temperature applications?

52 / 100

52. The use of anthropoid hazard chemicals like DDT causes reduction in fish population
because the chemical mimics the effect of

53 / 100

53. Which of the following diversity indices best captures species turnover across habitats?

54 / 100

54. Flame photometry is most suitable for the quantitative determination of:

55 / 100

55. Assertion (A): The use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in agriculture is a controversial topic.

Reason (R): There are concerns about the potential environmental and health impacts of GMOs.

56 / 100

56. Which of the following is NOT a common method for identifying microorganisms?

57 / 100

57. Which of the following is NOT a precursor to a volcanic eruption?

58 / 100

58. The concept of “zero waste” aims to:

59 / 100

59. The phenomenon of industrial smog is primarily associated with which type of pollution?

60 / 100

60. The “informal sector” in waste management refers to:

61 / 100

61. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonia by bacteria is called:

62 / 100

62. Which of the following is a crucial factor in avalanche formation?

63 / 100

63. Which GPCD is MOST effective at removing highly soluble acidic gases like hydrogen chloride (HCl)?

64 / 100

64. Why is the detection of pathogens like Giardia and Cryptosporidium challenging in water testing?

65 / 100

65. Landslide susceptibility maps are used to:

66 / 100

66. Biomagnification of persistent organic pollutants (POPs) in food webs primarily affects:

67 / 100

67. The cation exchange capacity (CEC) of a soil is highest in:

68 / 100

68. What is the primary electron acceptor in dissimilatory metal reduction?

69 / 100

69. When conducting jar tests for flocculation studies, what is counted to assess the process?

70 / 100

70. Which remote sensing technique uses sound waves to map the ocean floor?

71 / 100

71. The “A” value in soil fertility refers to:

72 / 100

72. How does the Earth’s radiation balance contribute to the greenhouse effect?

73 / 100

73. The “greenhouse effect” is primarily caused by:

74 / 100

74. Which particulate control device is MOST suitable for capturing submicron particles with high efficiency in a high-temperature industrial process?

75 / 100

75. Which soil structure is most desirable for plant growth?

76 / 100

76. Which of the following is NOT a common type of reagent used in flue gas desulfurization (FGD) systems?

77 / 100

77. Theย  Indian regional satellite navigationย  system known as

78 / 100

78. The Coriolis effect plays a significant role in:

79 / 100

79. Which of the following is NOT a type of tidal energy system?

80 / 100

80. The effectiveness of a biofilter for removing a specific gaseous pollutant depends primarily on:

81 / 100

81. “Downcycling” of plastic waste refers to:

82 / 100

82. Fourier transform infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy is primarily used to identify:

83 / 100

83. In flood risk assessment, the term “100-year flood” refers to:

84 / 100

84. In the Munsell color system, soil hue of 5YR indicates:

85 / 100

85. The Richter scale measures an earthquake’s:

86 / 100

86. Which of the following is NOT a type of chromatography?

87 / 100

87. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) provides information on:

88 / 100

88. A coal-fired power plant releases 1000 kg of sulfur dioxide (SO2) per day. Given that the atomic weight of sulfur is 32 g/mol and oxygen is 16 g/mol, what is the molar mass of SO2? (EASY HAI ๐Ÿ™‚

89 / 100

89. Which law of thermodynamics explains the concept of energy degradation?

90 / 100

90. Which of the following is NOT a primary mechanism by which microbes contribute to soil aggregate formation?

91 / 100

91. The primary role of fungi in the biogeochemical cycling of phosphorus is:

92 / 100

92. Which of the following is an example of a symbiotic relationship between a microbe and a plant?

93 / 100

93. In an ESP, the phenomenon of “back corona” is caused by:

94 / 100

94. Identify the correct statements about biodiversity:

I. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and endemism.

II. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty aimed at conserving biodiversity.\

III. In-situ conservation involves preserving species in their natural habitats.

95 / 100

95. In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is:

96 / 100

96. The “Law of the Minimum” in plant nutrition states that:

97 / 100

97. Identify the correct statements about sampling theory:

I. A sample is a subset of a population.

II. Random sampling ensures every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

III. The larger the sample size, the lower the sampling error.

98 / 100

98. Which of the following techniques does NOT involve the use of X-rays?

99 / 100

99. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing soil organic matter decomposition?

100 / 100

100. The “Great Pacific Garbage Patch” is primarily composed of:

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