Quiz Environmental Science

QUIZ: UGC NET Paper 2 (Env Science)

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Quiz Environmental Science

Environmental Science Complete Quiz

100 Questions

1 / 100

1. The Richter scale measures an earthquake’s:

2 / 100

2. The use of anthropoid hazard chemicals like DDT causes reduction in fish population
because the chemical mimics the effect of

3 / 100

3. When modeling pollutant dispersion in a river, what key assumption does the Plug Flow Reactor (PFR) model make about mixing?

4 / 100

4. Which of the following is an example of a biological weathering process?

5 / 100

5. Identify the correct statements about biodiversity:

I. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and endemism.

II. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty aimed at conserving biodiversity.\

III. In-situ conservation involves preserving species in their natural habitats.

6 / 100

6. Which of the following techniques does NOT involve the use of X-rays?

7 / 100

7. Landslide susceptibility maps are used to:

8 / 100

8. In an ESP, the phenomenon of “back corona” is caused by:

9 / 100

9. Fourier transform infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy is primarily used to identify:

10 / 100

10. The concept of “biodiversity hotspots” includes areas with:

I. High species richness

II. High endemism

III. Significant habitat loss

11 / 100

11. Theย  Indian regional satellite navigationย  system known as

12 / 100

12. Which of the following is an example of a symbiotic relationship between a microbe and a plant?

13 / 100

13. Which type of baghouse filter media is most suitable for high-temperature applications?

14 / 100

14. How does the Earth’s radiation balance contribute to the greenhouse effect?

15 / 100

15. The “Cradle-to-Cradle” approach to waste management emphasizes:

16 / 100

16. Early warning systems for tsunamis rely primarily on:

17 / 100

17. In anaerobic digestion, the conversion of volatile fatty acids (VFAs) to methane is primarily carried out by:

18 / 100

18. The cation exchange capacity (CEC) of a soil is highest in:

19 / 100

19. The effectiveness of a biofilter for removing a specific gaseous pollutant depends primarily on:

20 / 100

20. Which soil horizon is often referred to as “subsoil”?

21 / 100

21. Which type of seismic wave is the fastest and first to arrive at a seismograph station?

22 / 100

22. Which particulate control device is MOST suitable for capturing submicron particles with high efficiency in a high-temperature industrial process?

23 / 100

23. What is the primary limitation of using steady-state models for environmental systems?

24 / 100

24.

Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of pollution?

25 / 100

25. The “intermediate disturbance hypothesis” suggests that:

26 / 100

26.

Which type of radiation is most harmful to living organisms?

27 / 100

27. In the context of climate change, “radiative forcing” refers to:

28 / 100

28. When conducting jar tests for flocculation studies, what is counted to assess the process?

29 / 100

29. The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale categorizes hurricanes based on:

30 / 100

30. Which soil order is associated with volcanic parent material?

31 / 100

31. The “A” value in soil fertility refers to:

32 / 100

32. “Producer Responsibility Organizations” (PROs) are primarily involved in:

33 / 100

33. The primary role of fungi in the biogeochemical cycling of phosphorus is:

34 / 100

34. The “Keeling Curve” is a graph that shows the variation of:

35 / 100

35. A coal-fired power plant releases 1000 kg of sulfur dioxide (SO2) per day. Given that the atomic weight of sulfur is 32 g/mol and oxygen is 16 g/mol, what is the molar mass of SO2? (EASY HAI ๐Ÿ™‚

36 / 100

36. If sยฒ is the variance of a sample of size N drawn from a normal population with variance ฯƒ, thenย  Nsยฒ/ฯƒยฒ has which one of the following distribution with (N-1) degrees of freedom ?

37 / 100

37. The phenomenon of industrial smog is primarily associated with which type of pollution?

38 / 100

38. In flood risk assessment, the term “100-year flood” refers to:

39 / 100

39. A key disadvantage of geothermal energy compared to other renewable sources is:

40 / 100

40. In a dry scrubber system, the sorbent material typically reacts with the pollutant gas to form:

41 / 100

41. Which of the following is NOT a precursor to a volcanic eruption?

42 / 100

42. Which law of thermodynamics explains the concept of energy degradation?

43 / 100

43. The “breakthrough point” in an adsorber refers to:

44 / 100

44. Flame photometry is most suitable for the quantitative determination of:

45 / 100

45. The concept of “zero waste” aims to:

46 / 100

46. Inductively coupled plasma (ICP) techniques offer the following advantages:

47 / 100

47. Which of the following is NOT a primary macronutrient for plant growth?

48 / 100

48. What is the primary electron acceptor in dissimilatory metal reduction?

49 / 100

49. A baghouse is experiencing a rapid increase in pressure drop across the filter bags. What is the MOST likely cause?

50 / 100

50. The power coefficient (Cp) of a wind turbine is defined as the ratio of:

51 / 100

51. Which of the following is NOT a type of chromatography?

52 / 100

52. Which type of geothermal power plant is most suitable for areas with low-temperature geothermal resources?

53 / 100

53. The “Great Pacific Garbage Patch” is primarily composed of:

54 / 100

54. The “Law of the Minimum” in plant nutrition states that:

55 / 100

55. The rhizosphere is characterized by:

56 / 100

56. Which type of solar cell has the highest efficiency?

57 / 100

57. Biomagnification of persistent organic pollutants (POPs) in food webs primarily affects:

58 / 100

58. Why is the detection of pathogens like Giardia and Cryptosporidium challenging in water testing?

59 / 100

59. The power output of a photovoltaic module is most sensitive to changes in:

60 / 100

60. Flood mitigation strategies include:

61 / 100

61. Which soil structure is most desirable for plant growth?

62 / 100

62. Which of the following is NOT a type of solar thermal storage system?

63 / 100

63. Which of the following gaseous pollutant control devices is NOT suitable for removing nitrogen oxides (NOx)?

64 / 100

64. The concept of “environmental justice” in the context of air pollution refers to:

65 / 100

65. The “informal sector” in waste management refers to:

66 / 100

66. Which of the following is NOT a type of tidal energy system?

67 / 100

67. Pyrolysis and gasification are thermal treatment processes primarily used for:

68 / 100

68. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?

69 / 100

69. Which GPCD is known for its ability to simultaneously remove both particulate and gaseous pollutants?

70 / 100

70. Which of the following factors does NOT directly influence the rate of pollutant generation in a water body?

71 / 100

71. An urban area generates 1000 tons of municipal solid waste (MSW) per day, and the waste has an average energy content of 10 MJ/kg. If a waste-to-energy plant can convert 25% of this energy into electricity, how much electricity (in MWh) can be generated daily?

72 / 100

72. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing soil organic matter decomposition?

73 / 100

73. Which GPCD is MOST effective at removing highly soluble acidic gases like hydrogen chloride (HCl)?

74 / 100

74. Which of the following is a crucial factor in avalanche formation?

75 / 100

75. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonia by bacteria is called:

76 / 100

76. In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is:

77 / 100

77. In an Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) system, the working fluid typically has:

78 / 100

78. Quorum sensing in bacteria is primarily mediated by:

79 / 100

79. Which of the following diversity indices best captures species turnover across habitats?

80 / 100

80. In the Munsell color system, soil hue of 5YR indicates:

81 / 100

81. Which GPCD utilizes microorganisms to degrade pollutants?

82 / 100

82. Which of the following is NOT a common method for identifying microorganisms?

83 / 100

83. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) provides information on:

84 / 100

84. “Downcycling” of plastic waste refers to:

85 / 100

85. The Kjeldahl method is used to determine:

86 / 100

86.

Eutrophication in lakes is primarily caused by excessive input of:

  1. Nitrogen

  2. phosphorus

  3. ย Carbon dioxide

  4. Heavy metals

  5. Pesticides

87 / 100

87. Avalanches can be triggered by:

88 / 100

88. Gas chromatography (GC) separates components based on their:

89 / 100

89. Which of the following is NOT a primary mechanism by which microbes contribute to soil aggregate formation?

90 / 100

90. The Mercalli Intensity Scale measures an earthquake based on:

91 / 100

91. X-ray fluorescence (XRF) is best suited for the analysis of:

92 / 100

92. Which type of cloud this is

93 / 100

93. The primary challenge in the design of solar ponds for electricity generation is:

94 / 100

94. The “greenhouse effect” is primarily caused by:

95 / 100

95. The Coriolis effect plays a significant role in:

96 / 100

96. Identify the correct statements about sampling theory:

I. A sample is a subset of a population.

II. Random sampling ensures every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

III. The larger the sample size, the lower the sampling error.

97 / 100

97. Gravimetric analysis relies on the measurement of:

98 / 100

98. Which remote sensing technique uses sound waves to map the ocean floor?

99 / 100

99. Assertion (A): The use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in agriculture is a controversial topic.

Reason (R): There are concerns about the potential environmental and health impacts of GMOs.

100 / 100

100. Which of the following is NOT a common type of reagent used in flue gas desulfurization (FGD) systems?

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