Complete Syllabus Quiz: Environmental Science

1. How does the Earth’s radiation balance contribute to the greenhouse effect?

2. If s² is the variance of a sample of size N drawn from a normal population with variance σ, then  Ns²/σ² has which one of the following distribution with (N-1) degrees of freedom ?

3. Which type of radiation is primarily responsible for heating the atmosphere during the night?

4. Which of the following can be used as groundwater tracers?

A) Tritium
B) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
C) Stable isotopes of oxygen and hydrogen
D) Radon

5. Which of the following materials would be least preferable under GRIHA’s criteria for sustainable building materials?

A) Recycled steel
B) Bamboo
C) Virgin aluminum
D) Fly ash bricks
E) Low-VOC paints

6. The Stockholm Conference on Human Environment, 1972, is significant because:

A) It led to the creation of the UNFCCC.
B) It resulted in the signing of the Kyoto Protocol.
C) It focused solely on climate change.
D) It banned the use of DDT worldwide.

Correct Answers

7. Match the biome with its typical animal:

A) Tundra – Polar bear
B) Taiga – Moose
C) Grassland – Giraffe
D) Deciduous Forest – White-tailed deer
E) Highland Icy Alpine – Mountain goat
F) Chaparral – Kangaroo rat

Correct pairs are

8. In the Munsell color system, soil hue of 5YR indicates:

9. Which correct match of the terms with their descriptions:

A) Aquifer – Layer of rock or sediment that can yield economically significant quantities of water
B) Aquiclude – Layer that can neither store nor transmit water
C) Aquitard – Layer that can store but not transmit water easily
D) Aquifuge – Layer that can transmit water but not store it
E) Confined Aquifer – Bounded above and below by impermeable layers
F) Unconfined Aquifer – Top boundary is the water table

10. If the blade length and wind velocity are both doubled, how many times will the power output increase?

11. Assertion (A): A building with a GRIHA rating of 71-80 points is considered a 3-star rated building.
Reason (R): The GRIHA rating system categorizes buildings based on their environmental performance, with higher points indicating better sustainability.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
E) Both A and R are false.

12. Assertion (A): Soil with high clay content has good drainage.
Reason (R): Clay particles are small and tightly packed, contract water movement.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
E) Both A and R are false.

13. In a system undergoing a process where both heat transfer and work occur, if the process is reversible and adiabatic, which of the following is true according to the first law of thermodynamics?

14. Assertion (A): Nuclear energy is considered a renewable energy source.
Reason (R): Uranium, the primary fuel for nuclear reactors, is abundant enough to be considered renewable.

15. In the process of water purification, if the sedimentation step is followed by coagulation and flocculation, what is the primary purpose of adding coagulants?

16. The “Law of the Minimum” in plant nutrition states that:

17. A) Soil pH affects nutrient availability to plants.
B) Soil texture determines water retention capacity.
C) Organic matter increases soil fertility.
D) High sand content increases soil’s water-holding capacity.
E) Soil structure is not influenced by biological activity.
F) Soil color has no impact on soil temperature.

Correct Answers:

18. Which of the following statements about the hydrological cycle are correct?

A) The hydrological cycle is driven by solar energy.
B) Evaporation from oceans contributes more to atmospheric moisture than transpiration from plants.
C) Sublimation is the process of ice turning directly into water vapor.
D) Infiltration is the movement of water through the soil into groundwater.
E) Runoff always leads to increased soil erosion.
F) Condensation is the process by which water vapor becomes liquid water.

19. Which of the following is NOT a criterion under the Sustainable Site Planning category in GRIHA?

A) Green Infrastructure
B) Low-Impact Design Strategies
C) Design to Mitigate Urban Heat Island Effect
D) Energy Optimization
E) Topsoil Preservation

20. Which of the following are function of the Conference of the Parties (COP) under environmental conventions?

A) Reviewing progress in implementation.
B) Making decisions to promote the convention’s effective implementation.
C) Amending the convention as necessary.
D) Enforcing penalties on non-complying countries.
E) Adopting protocols to the convention.

21. Which scale of measurement has a true zero point, allowing for meaningful ratios and comparisons?

22. A regression model with multiple independent variables is called a:

23. In terms of ecological habitats, which of the following would be least likely to support a high level of species diversity?

24. In the context of the Gaussian plume model, which of the following factors does NOT directly affect the dispersion parameters σ_y and σ_z?

A) Wind speed
B) Stability class
C) Distance from the source
D) Stack height

25. Given that the pressure at sea level is 1013 hPa, at what altitude would you expect the pressure to be roughly half of this value, assuming a standard atmosphere?

26. Which of these factors affect hydraulic conductivity?
A) Porosity of the medium B) Viscosity of the fluid C) Temperature of the fluid D) Pressure gradient E) Size and shape of grains in the medium F) Presence of fractures or fissures

27. In a non-steady-state Continuous Stirred Tank Reactor (CSTR) model, which factor most significantly impacts the rate of change of pollutant concentration?

28. Which of the following best describes the effect of an inversion layer on pollutant dispersion?

29. During the hydrological cycle, which process directly contributes to the increase in dissolved oxygen (DO) in water bodies?

30. A) Nuclear fission involves splitting heavy atomic nuclei.
B) Breeder reactors produce more fissile material than they consume.
C) Nuclear waste remains radioactive for centuries.
D) Nuclear energy does not contribute to greenhouse gas emissions.
E) Chernobyl was a nuclear fusion accident.
F) Thorium can be used as a nuclear fuel.

Correct Answers

31. Assertion (A): Excessive groundwater extraction can lead to land subsidence.
Reason (R): When groundwater is removed, the soil compacts, reducing pore space.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

32. Which of the following ions, when present in the atmosphere, can lead to the formation of new aerosol particles, thereby affecting cloud formation and climate?

33. Consider a material balance for a chemical reaction where reactants A and B form product C. If the reaction is at equilibrium in a closed system, and you suddenly remove some of C, according to Le Chatelier’s principle:

34. If the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere is:

35. Precipitation is most likely to occur when:

36. Which of the following statements about Dissolved Oxygen (DO), Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), and Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) are true?

A) DO levels in water are inversely proportional to temperature.
B) BOD measures the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose organic matter.
C) COD is always higher than BOD because it includes non-biodegradable organic matter.
D) High BOD indicates clean, oxygen-rich water.
E) COD is determined by strong chemical oxidants like dichromate.
F) BOD and COD are used to assess water quality but COD is faster to measure.

37. The Air Quality Index (AQI) value of 301-500 falls under which category?

38. Consider an ecosystem where a keystone species is removed. What would you predict about the niche of other species in this ecosystem?

39. Which of the following scenarios would most likely increase species diversity in an ecosystem?

40. A) Bioenergy – Energy derived from organic materials
B) Nuclear Fusion – Combining light atomic nuclei to release energy
C) Soil Texture – Refers to the relative proportions of sand, silt, and clay
D) E-waste – Discarded electronic devices
E) Cation Exchange Capacity (CEC) – Measure of soil’s ability to retain nutrients
F) Half-life – Time taken for half of a radioactive substance to add

Correct Matches

41. Assertion (A): Eco-labeling schemes are voluntary programs.
Reason (R): They encourage businesses to market their products based on environmental performance.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true

42. Which of the following is a key principle of the National Environmental Policy, 2006?

A) Sustainable development
B) Environmental justice
C) Economic growth over environmental concerns
D) Promotion of nuclear energy
E) Decentralization of environmental governance
F) Mandatory environmental education in schools

43.
In a lake, if the DO level drops to zero in the hypolimnion (bottom layer), what would be the immediate consequence for the Redox potential (Eh)?

44. Which of the following are challenges associated with bioenergy?

A) Competition with food crops for land.
B) High energy return on investment (EROI).
C) Emissions of greenhouse gases during production.
D) Limited technological development for conversion processes.
E) Soil degradation due to intensive biomass cultivation.
F) Always carbon-negative due to plant growth.

45. In a wind rose diagram, if the longest spokes are towards the northeast, this indicates:

46. In a steady-state, steady-flow process, if the system undergoes an adiabatic process where no heat is exchanged, and work is done by the system, which of the following must be true?

47. Which amendments to the EIA Notification 2006 introduced the concept of ‘Prior Environmental Clearance’?

A) 2009 Amendment
B) 2011 Amendment
C) 2020 Amendment
D) None of Above

48. Why is the detection of pathogens like Giardia and Cryptosporidium challenging in water testing?

49. The Almatti Dam dispute primarily involved which two states?
A) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
B) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
D) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh

50. Biome with its characteristic feature:

A) Tundra – High biodiversity
B) Taiga – Dominated by coniferous trees
C) Grassland – Frequent fires
D) Deciduous Forest – Trees lose leaves seasonally
E) Highland Icy Alpine – Above the tree line
F) Chaparral – Mediterranean climate with wet winters

Which pairs are correct ?